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Question 1 of 5.

A 22-year-old single woman was admitted to the psychiatric hospital by her mother, who reported bizarre behavior. Except for going to work, she spends all her time in her room and expresses concern over neighbors spying on her. She has fears of the telephone being 'bugged.' Her diagnosis is schizophrenia. One nurse per shift is assigned to work with the client. The primary reason for this plan would be to:

A. Protect her from suicide

B. Enable her to develop trust

C. Supervise her medication regimen

D. Involve her in groups for social interaction

Explanation: The client is suspicious and needs help to develop trust, which is basic to her improvement. Consistent nursing assignment fosters a therapeutic relationship.

Question 2 of 5.

The physician has ordered a low-residue diet for a client with Crohn's disease. Which food is not permitted in a low-residue diet?

A. Mashed potatoes

B. Smooth peanut butter

C. Fried fish

D. Rice

Explanation: A low-residue diet minimizes fiber and irritating foods; fried fish is high in fat and can irritate the gut, making it unsuitable for Crohn's disease.

Question 3 of 5.

The physician has ordered Eskalith (lithium carbonate) 500 mg three times a day and Risperdal (risperidone) 2 mg twice daily for a client admitted with bipolar disorder, acute manic episodes. The best explanation for the client's medication regimen is:

A. The client's symptoms of acute mania are typical of undiagnosed schizophrenia.

B. Antipsychotic medication is used to manage behavioral excitement until mood stabilization occurs.

C. The client will be more compliant with a medication that allows some feelings of hypomania.

D. Antipsychotic medication prevents psychotic symptoms commonly associated with the use of mood stabilizers.

Explanation: Risperidone, an antipsychotic, is used to control acute manic symptoms like agitation, while lithium stabilizes mood over time, addressing the immediate behavioral excitement.

Question 4 of 5.

Which one of the following situations represents a maturational crisis for the family?

A. A four-year-old entering nursery school

B. Development of preeclampsia during pregnancy

C. Loss of employment and health benefits

D. Hospitalization of a grandfather with a stroke

Explanation: A maturational crisis involves normal developmental transitions, such as a child entering nursery school, which can stress family dynamics.

Question 5 of 5.

The nurse is making room assignments for four obstetrical clients. If only one private room is available, it should be assigned to:

A. A multigravida with diabetes mellitus

B. A primigravida with preeclampsia

C. A multigravida with preterm labor

D. A primigravida with hyperemesis gravidarum

Explanation: Preeclampsia requires close monitoring due to risks like seizures or stroke, making a private room essential for a primigravida with this condition.

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