Mock NCLEX RN Exam
Question 1 of 5.
A 1-year-old child is to receive an IM injection ordered by his pediatrician. He has fallen asleep in his mother's arms when the nurse approaches. Which approach is most appropriate at this time?
A. Give the injection in the vastus lateralis site before the child awakens.
B. Awaken the child first and give the injection in the ventrogluteal site.
C. Awaken the child first and give the injection in the dorsogluteal site.
D. Ask the mother to place the child on the examination table and leave the room, and then give the injection in an appropriate site.
Explanation: If awakened first, the child will know that nothing painful will be done without the child being alerted. The ventrogluteal site is a safe site for children because it is a large muscle free of major nerves and blood vessels. The dorsogluteal site is not recommended in children who have not been walking for at least 1 year because the muscle is not fully developed. The parent will be able to offer support and comfort during and after the injection.
Question 2 of 5.
The physician has ordered a low-residue diet for a client with Crohn's disease. Which food is not permitted in a low-residue diet?
A. Mashed potatoes
B. Smooth peanut butter
C. Fried fish
D. Rice
Explanation: A low-residue diet minimizes fiber and irritating foods; fried fish is high in fat and can irritate the gut, making it unsuitable for Crohn's disease.
Question 3 of 5.
The physician has ordered Eskalith (lithium carbonate) 500 mg three times a day and Risperdal (risperidone) 2 mg twice daily for a client admitted with bipolar disorder, acute manic episodes. The best explanation for the client's medication regimen is:
A. The client's symptoms of acute mania are typical of undiagnosed schizophrenia.
B. Antipsychotic medication is used to manage behavioral excitement until mood stabilization occurs.
C. The client will be more compliant with a medication that allows some feelings of hypomania.
D. Antipsychotic medication prevents psychotic symptoms commonly associated with the use of mood stabilizers.
Explanation: Risperidone, an antipsychotic, is used to control acute manic symptoms like agitation, while lithium stabilizes mood over time, addressing the immediate behavioral excitement.
Question 4 of 5.
Which one of the following situations represents a maturational crisis for the family?
A. A four-year-old entering nursery school
B. Development of preeclampsia during pregnancy
C. Loss of employment and health benefits
D. Hospitalization of a grandfather with a stroke
Explanation: A maturational crisis involves normal developmental transitions, such as a child entering nursery school, which can stress family dynamics.
Question 5 of 5.
The nurse is making room assignments for four obstetrical clients. If only one private room is available, it should be assigned to:
A. A multigravida with diabetes mellitus
B. A primigravida with preeclampsia
C. A multigravida with preterm labor
D. A primigravida with hyperemesis gravidarum
Explanation: Preeclampsia requires close monitoring due to risks like seizures or stroke, making a private room essential for a primigravida with this condition.