Mock NCLEX RN Exam
Question 1 of 5.
A male client received a heart-lung transplant 1 month ago at a local transplant center. While visiting the nursing center to have his blood pressure taken, he complains of recent weakness and fatigue. He also tells the nurse that he is considering stopping his cyclosporine because it is expensive and is causing his face to become round. He fears he will catch viruses and be more susceptible to infections. The nurse responds to this last statement by explaining that cyclosporine:
A. Is given to prevent rejection and makes him less susceptible to infection than other oral corticosteroids
B. Is available at discount pharmacies for a reduced price
C. Is usually not necessary after the first year following transplantation
D. May initially cause weakness, dizziness, and fatigue, but these side effects will gradually resolve themselves
Explanation: Cyclosporine is the immunosuppressive drug of choice. It provides immunosuppression but does not lower the white blood cell count; therefore, the client is less susceptible to infection. Cyclosporine is available at discount pharmacies. The cost may be absorbed by health insurance, or Medicare, if the client is eligible. However, this statement does not address the entire problem verbalized by the client. Immunosuppressive agents will be taken for the client's entire life because rejection can occur at any time. These side effects do not necessarily resolve in time; however, the client may adapt.
Question 2 of 5.
The physician has ordered a low-residue diet for a client with Crohn's disease. Which food is not permitted in a low-residue diet?
A. Mashed potatoes
B. Smooth peanut butter
C. Fried fish
D. Rice
Explanation: A low-residue diet minimizes fiber and irritating foods; fried fish is high in fat and can irritate the gut, making it unsuitable for Crohn's disease.
Question 3 of 5.
The physician has ordered Eskalith (lithium carbonate) 500 mg three times a day and Risperdal (risperidone) 2 mg twice daily for a client admitted with bipolar disorder, acute manic episodes. The best explanation for the client's medication regimen is:
A. The client's symptoms of acute mania are typical of undiagnosed schizophrenia.
B. Antipsychotic medication is used to manage behavioral excitement until mood stabilization occurs.
C. The client will be more compliant with a medication that allows some feelings of hypomania.
D. Antipsychotic medication prevents psychotic symptoms commonly associated with the use of mood stabilizers.
Explanation: Risperidone, an antipsychotic, is used to control acute manic symptoms like agitation, while lithium stabilizes mood over time, addressing the immediate behavioral excitement.
Question 4 of 5.
Which one of the following situations represents a maturational crisis for the family?
A. A four-year-old entering nursery school
B. Development of preeclampsia during pregnancy
C. Loss of employment and health benefits
D. Hospitalization of a grandfather with a stroke
Explanation: A maturational crisis involves normal developmental transitions, such as a child entering nursery school, which can stress family dynamics.
Question 5 of 5.
The nurse is making room assignments for four obstetrical clients. If only one private room is available, it should be assigned to:
A. A multigravida with diabetes mellitus
B. A primigravida with preeclampsia
C. A multigravida with preterm labor
D. A primigravida with hyperemesis gravidarum
Explanation: Preeclampsia requires close monitoring due to risks like seizures or stroke, making a private room essential for a primigravida with this condition.
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