Musculoskeletal Disorders NCLEX Questions
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Question 1 of 5.
When reviewing the chart of a 25-year-old male, the nurse reads that the client was diagnosed with an osteosarcoma of the distal femur. Which statement indicates the nurse's correct interpretation of the client's diagnosis?
A. The tumor originated elsewhere in the client's body and metastasized to the bone.
B. Osteosarcoma is the most common and most often fatal primary malignant bone tumor.
C. The only treatment for osteosarcoma is a leg amputation well above the tumor growth.
D. The tumor is nonmalignant;it can be excised and the bone replaced with a bone graft.
Explanation: B. Osteosarcoma is a malignant primary tumor of the bone, appearing most frequently in males between 10 and 25 years (when bones grow rapidly). Prognosis depends on whether the tumor has metastasized to the lungs, but it is often fatal.
Question 2 of 5.
The nurse is caring for an elderly client diagnosed with a herniated nucleus pulposus of L4-5. Which scientific rationale explains the incidence of a ruptured disk in the elderly?
A. The client did not use good body mechanics when lifting an object.
B. There is an increased blood supply to the back as the body ages.
C. Older clients develop atherosclerotic joint disease as a result of fat deposits.
D. Clients develop intervertebral disk degeneration as they age.
Explanation: Intervertebral disk degeneration with aging reduces disk hydration and elasticity, increasing rupture risk. Poor body mechanics is a risk but not the primary cause, blood supply decreases, and atherosclerosis affects joints differently.
Question 3 of 5.
The nurse is caring for clients on an orthopedic floor. Which client should be assessed first?
A. The client diagnosed with back pain who is complaining of a '4' on a 1-to-10 scale.
B. The client who has undergone a myelogram who is complaining of a slight headache.
C. The client two (2) days post-disk fusion who has T 100.4, P 96, R 24, and BP 138/78.
D. The client diagnosed with back pain who is being discharged and whose ride is here.
Explanation: Fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea post-disk fusion suggest infection or complications, requiring urgent assessment. Mild pain, headache, and discharge are lower priority.
Question 4 of 5.
The client diagnosed with OA is prescribed a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Which instruction should the nurse teach the client?
A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
B. Make sure to taper the medication when discontinuing.
C. Apply the medication topically over the affected joints.
D. Notify the health-care provider if vomiting blood.
Explanation: Vomiting blood indicates GI bleeding, a serious NSAID side effect requiring immediate HCP notification. NSAIDs should be taken with food, tapering is not typical, and topical NSAIDs are distinct.
Question 5 of 5.
The nurse is discussing osteoporosis with a group of women. Which factor will the nurse identify as a nonmodifiable risk factor?
A. Calcium deficiency.
B. Tobacco use.
C. Female gender.
D. High alcohol intake.
Explanation: Female gender is a nonmodifiable risk factor for osteoporosis due to lower bone density post-menopause. Calcium deficiency, tobacco, and alcohol are modifiable.