Musculoskeletal Disorders NCLEX Questions
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Question 1 of 5.
Which intervention should the nurse implement for a client with a fractured hip in Buck's traction?
A. Assess the insertion sites for signs and symptoms of infection.
B. Monitor for drainage or odor from under the plaster covering the pins.
C. Check the condition of the skin beneath the Velcro boot frequently.
D. Take weights off for one (1) hour every eight (8) hours and as needed.
Explanation: Checking skin under the Velcro boot prevents irritation or breakdown in Buck's traction. Insertion sites and plaster are for skeletal traction, and weights must remain constant.
Question 2 of 5.
The nurse is caring for an elderly client diagnosed with a herniated nucleus pulposus of L4-5. Which scientific rationale explains the incidence of a ruptured disk in the elderly?
A. The client did not use good body mechanics when lifting an object.
B. There is an increased blood supply to the back as the body ages.
C. Older clients develop atherosclerotic joint disease as a result of fat deposits.
D. Clients develop intervertebral disk degeneration as they age.
Explanation: Intervertebral disk degeneration with aging reduces disk hydration and elasticity, increasing rupture risk. Poor body mechanics is a risk but not the primary cause, blood supply decreases, and atherosclerosis affects joints differently.
Question 3 of 5.
The nurse is caring for clients on an orthopedic floor. Which client should be assessed first?
A. The client diagnosed with back pain who is complaining of a '4' on a 1-to-10 scale.
B. The client who has undergone a myelogram who is complaining of a slight headache.
C. The client two (2) days post-disk fusion who has T 100.4, P 96, R 24, and BP 138/78.
D. The client diagnosed with back pain who is being discharged and whose ride is here.
Explanation: Fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea post-disk fusion suggest infection or complications, requiring urgent assessment. Mild pain, headache, and discharge are lower priority.
Question 4 of 5.
The client diagnosed with OA is prescribed a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Which instruction should the nurse teach the client?
A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
B. Make sure to taper the medication when discontinuing.
C. Apply the medication topically over the affected joints.
D. Notify the health-care provider if vomiting blood.
Explanation: Vomiting blood indicates GI bleeding, a serious NSAID side effect requiring immediate HCP notification. NSAIDs should be taken with food, tapering is not typical, and topical NSAIDs are distinct.
Question 5 of 5.
The nurse is discussing osteoporosis with a group of women. Which factor will the nurse identify as a nonmodifiable risk factor?
A. Calcium deficiency.
B. Tobacco use.
C. Female gender.
D. High alcohol intake.
Explanation: Female gender is a nonmodifiable risk factor for osteoporosis due to lower bone density post-menopause. Calcium deficiency, tobacco, and alcohol are modifiable.