Psychiatric NCLEX RN Questions
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Question 1 of 5.
The nurse discusses the possibility of a client's attending day treatment for clients with Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following is the best rationale for encouraging day treatment?
A. The client would have more structure to his day.
B. Staff are excellent in the treatment they offer clients.
C. The client would benefit from increased social interaction.
D. The family would have more time to engage in their daily activities.
Explanation: Increased social interaction in day treatment helps reduce isolation and may slow cognitive decline in Alzheimer's, making it the primary therapeutic benefit.
Question 2 of 5.
The client is taking 50 mg of lamotrigine (Lamictal) daily for bipolar depression. The client shows the nurse a rash on his arm. What should the nurse do?
A. Report the rash to the physician.
B. Explain that the rash is a temporary adverse effect.
C. Give the client an ice pack for his arm.
D. Question the client about recent sun exposure.
Explanation: A rash with Lamictal may indicate a serious reaction like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, requiring immediate physician notification.
Question 3 of 5.
The client exhibits a flat affect, psychomotor retardation, and depressed mood. The nurse attempts to engage the client in an interaction but the client does not respond to the nurse. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. I'll sit here with you for 15 minutes.'
B. I'll come back a little bit later to talk.'
C. I'll find someone else for you to talk with.'
D. I'll get you something to read.'
Explanation: Sitting quietly with the client provides presence and support, respecting their current inability to engage.
Question 4 of 5.
During an interaction with the nurse, a client states, 'My husband has supported me every time I've been hospitalized for depression. He'll leave me this time. I'm an awful wife and mother. I'm no good. Nothing I do is right.' Based on this information, which of the following nursing diagnoses should the nurse identify when developing the client's plan of care?
A. Impaired social interaction related to unsatisfactory relationships as evidenced by withdrawal.
B. Chronic low self-esteem related to lack of self-worth as evidenced by negative self-statements.
C. Risk for self-directed violence related to feelings of guilt as evidenced by statements of suicidal ideation.
D. Ineffective coping related to hospitalizations as evidenced by impaired judgment.
Explanation: The client's negative self-statements directly indicate chronic low self-esteem, a priority nursing diagnosis.
Question 5 of 5.
The client who has been taking venlafaxine (Effexor) 25 mg P.O. three times a day for the past 2 days states, 'This medicine isn't doing me any good. I'm still so depressed.' Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. I'm sure the medicine will help you soon.'
B. It usually takes about 2 to 4 weeks for the medicine to work.'
C. Maybe the doctor will change your medicine.'
D. Tell me more about how you're feeling.'
Explanation: Explaining the 2–4 week onset of antidepressants sets realistic expectations and encourages adherence.
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