A nurse on the Geropsychiatric unit receives a call from the son of a

Psychiatric NCLEX RN Questions

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Question 1 of 5.

A nurse on the Geropsychiatric unit receives a call from the son of a recently discharged client. He reports that his father just got a prescription for memantine (Namenda) to take 'on top of his donepezil (Aricept).' The son then asks, 'Why does he have to take extra medicines?' The nurse should tell the son:

A. Maybe the Aricept alone isn't improving his dementia fast enough or well enough.'

B. Namenda and Aricept are commonly used together to slow the progression of dementia.'

C. Namenda is more effective than Aricept. Your father will be tapered off the Aricept.'

D. Aricept has a short half-life and Namenda has a long half-life. They work well together.'

Explanation: Memantine and donepezil are often combined to target different aspects of dementia (cholinesterase inhibition and NMDA receptor regulation), slowing progression more effectively together.

Question 2 of 5.

The client is taking 50 mg of lamotrigine (Lamictal) daily for bipolar depression. The client shows the nurse a rash on his arm. What should the nurse do?

A. Report the rash to the physician.

B. Explain that the rash is a temporary adverse effect.

C. Give the client an ice pack for his arm.

D. Question the client about recent sun exposure.

Explanation: A rash with Lamictal may indicate a serious reaction like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, requiring immediate physician notification.

Question 3 of 5.

The client exhibits a flat affect, psychomotor retardation, and depressed mood. The nurse attempts to engage the client in an interaction but the client does not respond to the nurse. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

A. I'll sit here with you for 15 minutes.'

B. I'll come back a little bit later to talk.'

C. I'll find someone else for you to talk with.'

D. I'll get you something to read.'

Explanation: Sitting quietly with the client provides presence and support, respecting their current inability to engage.

Question 4 of 5.

During an interaction with the nurse, a client states, 'My husband has supported me every time I've been hospitalized for depression. He'll leave me this time. I'm an awful wife and mother. I'm no good. Nothing I do is right.' Based on this information, which of the following nursing diagnoses should the nurse identify when developing the client's plan of care?

A. Impaired social interaction related to unsatisfactory relationships as evidenced by withdrawal.

B. Chronic low self-esteem related to lack of self-worth as evidenced by negative self-statements.

C. Risk for self-directed violence related to feelings of guilt as evidenced by statements of suicidal ideation.

D. Ineffective coping related to hospitalizations as evidenced by impaired judgment.

Explanation: The client's negative self-statements directly indicate chronic low self-esteem, a priority nursing diagnosis.

Question 5 of 5.

The client who has been taking venlafaxine (Effexor) 25 mg P.O. three times a day for the past 2 days states, 'This medicine isn't doing me any good. I'm still so depressed.' Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?

A. I'm sure the medicine will help you soon.'

B. It usually takes about 2 to 4 weeks for the medicine to work.'

C. Maybe the doctor will change your medicine.'

D. Tell me more about how you're feeling.'

Explanation: Explaining the 2â€“4 week onset of antidepressants sets realistic expectations and encourages adherence.