Mock NCLEX RN Exam
Question 1 of 5.
Seven days ago, a 45-year-old female client had an ileostomy. She is self-sufficient and well otherwise. Which of the following long-term objectives would be unrealistic?
A. She should be able to control evacuation of her bowels.
B. She should be able to return to a regular diet.
C. She should be able to resume sexual activity.
D. She should be able to manage her own care.
Explanation: Because of the location of an ileostomy, the client will not be able to control the evacuation of her bowels. The ileostomy will drain liquid stool continuously. The client should be able to return to a normal, well-balanced diet. She should avoid foods that cause diarrhea or excessive gas production, and she should eat small meals. The client should be able to resume sexual activity. She will be able to wear a pouch. The client has no other health or mental problems and should be able to manage her own ileostomy.
Question 2 of 5.
The physician has ordered a low-residue diet for a client with Crohn's disease. Which food is not permitted in a low-residue diet?
A. Mashed potatoes
B. Smooth peanut butter
C. Fried fish
D. Rice
Explanation: A low-residue diet minimizes fiber and irritating foods; fried fish is high in fat and can irritate the gut, making it unsuitable for Crohn's disease.
Question 3 of 5.
The physician has ordered Eskalith (lithium carbonate) 500 mg three times a day and Risperdal (risperidone) 2 mg twice daily for a client admitted with bipolar disorder, acute manic episodes. The best explanation for the client's medication regimen is:
A. The client's symptoms of acute mania are typical of undiagnosed schizophrenia.
B. Antipsychotic medication is used to manage behavioral excitement until mood stabilization occurs.
C. The client will be more compliant with a medication that allows some feelings of hypomania.
D. Antipsychotic medication prevents psychotic symptoms commonly associated with the use of mood stabilizers.
Explanation: Risperidone, an antipsychotic, is used to control acute manic symptoms like agitation, while lithium stabilizes mood over time, addressing the immediate behavioral excitement.
Question 4 of 5.
Which one of the following situations represents a maturational crisis for the family?
A. A four-year-old entering nursery school
B. Development of preeclampsia during pregnancy
C. Loss of employment and health benefits
D. Hospitalization of a grandfather with a stroke
Explanation: A maturational crisis involves normal developmental transitions, such as a child entering nursery school, which can stress family dynamics.
Question 5 of 5.
The nurse is making room assignments for four obstetrical clients. If only one private room is available, it should be assigned to:
A. A multigravida with diabetes mellitus
B. A primigravida with preeclampsia
C. A multigravida with preterm labor
D. A primigravida with hyperemesis gravidarum
Explanation: Preeclampsia requires close monitoring due to risks like seizures or stroke, making a private room essential for a primigravida with this condition.