Mock NCLEX RN Exam
Question 1 of 5.
A 45-year-old client diagnosed with major depression is scheduled for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) in the morning. Which of the following medications are routinely administered either before or during ECT?
A. Thioridazine (Mellaril), lithium, and benztropine
B. Atropine, sodium brevitol, and succinylcholine chloride (Anectine)
C. Sodium, potassium, and magnesium
D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol), haloperidol, and trihexyphenidyl (Artane)
Explanation: Thioridazine (an antipsychotic drug), lithium (an antimanic drug), and benztropine (an antiparkinsonism agent) are generally administered to treat schizophrenic and bipolar disorders. Atropine (a cholinergic blocker), sodium brevitol (a short-acting anesthetic), and succinylcholine (a neuromuscular blocker) are administered either before or during ECT to counteract bradycardia and to provide anesthesia and total muscle relaxation. These are electrolyte substances administered to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances in the body. Carbamazepine (an anticonvulsant), haloperidol (an antipsychotic), and trihexyphenidyl (an antiparkinsonism agent) are usually administered in psychiatric settings to control problems associated with psychotic behavior.
Question 2 of 5.
The physician has ordered a low-residue diet for a client with Crohn's disease. Which food is not permitted in a low-residue diet?
A. Mashed potatoes
B. Smooth peanut butter
C. Fried fish
D. Rice
Explanation: A low-residue diet minimizes fiber and irritating foods; fried fish is high in fat and can irritate the gut, making it unsuitable for Crohn's disease.
Question 3 of 5.
The physician has ordered Eskalith (lithium carbonate) 500 mg three times a day and Risperdal (risperidone) 2 mg twice daily for a client admitted with bipolar disorder, acute manic episodes. The best explanation for the client's medication regimen is:
A. The client's symptoms of acute mania are typical of undiagnosed schizophrenia.
B. Antipsychotic medication is used to manage behavioral excitement until mood stabilization occurs.
C. The client will be more compliant with a medication that allows some feelings of hypomania.
D. Antipsychotic medication prevents psychotic symptoms commonly associated with the use of mood stabilizers.
Explanation: Risperidone, an antipsychotic, is used to control acute manic symptoms like agitation, while lithium stabilizes mood over time, addressing the immediate behavioral excitement.
Question 4 of 5.
Which one of the following situations represents a maturational crisis for the family?
A. A four-year-old entering nursery school
B. Development of preeclampsia during pregnancy
C. Loss of employment and health benefits
D. Hospitalization of a grandfather with a stroke
Explanation: A maturational crisis involves normal developmental transitions, such as a child entering nursery school, which can stress family dynamics.
Question 5 of 5.
The nurse is making room assignments for four obstetrical clients. If only one private room is available, it should be assigned to:
A. A multigravida with diabetes mellitus
B. A primigravida with preeclampsia
C. A multigravida with preterm labor
D. A primigravida with hyperemesis gravidarum
Explanation: Preeclampsia requires close monitoring due to risks like seizures or stroke, making a private room essential for a primigravida with this condition.