Mock NCLEX RN Exam
Question 1 of 5.
An 80-year-old widow is living with her son and daughter-in-law. The home health nurse has been making weekly visits to draw blood for a prothrombin time test. The client is taking 5 mg of coumadin per day. She appears more debilitated, and bruises are noted on her face. Elder abuse is suspected. Which of the following are signs of persons who are at risk for abusing an elderly person?
A. A family member who is having marital problems and is regularly abusing alcohol
B. A person with adequate communication and coping skills who is employed by the family
C. A friend of the family who wants to help but is minimally competent
D. A lifelong friend of the client who is often confused
Explanation: This answer is correct. Two risk factors are identified in this answer. This answer is incorrect. Persons at risk tend to lack communication skills and effective coping patterns. This answer is incorrect. Persons at risk are usually family members or those reluctant to provide care. This answer is incorrect. This individual has a vested interest in providing care.
Question 2 of 5.
The physician has ordered a low-residue diet for a client with Crohn's disease. Which food is not permitted in a low-residue diet?
A. Mashed potatoes
B. Smooth peanut butter
C. Fried fish
D. Rice
Explanation: A low-residue diet minimizes fiber and irritating foods; fried fish is high in fat and can irritate the gut, making it unsuitable for Crohn's disease.
Question 3 of 5.
The physician has ordered Eskalith (lithium carbonate) 500 mg three times a day and Risperdal (risperidone) 2 mg twice daily for a client admitted with bipolar disorder, acute manic episodes. The best explanation for the client's medication regimen is:
A. The client's symptoms of acute mania are typical of undiagnosed schizophrenia.
B. Antipsychotic medication is used to manage behavioral excitement until mood stabilization occurs.
C. The client will be more compliant with a medication that allows some feelings of hypomania.
D. Antipsychotic medication prevents psychotic symptoms commonly associated with the use of mood stabilizers.
Explanation: Risperidone, an antipsychotic, is used to control acute manic symptoms like agitation, while lithium stabilizes mood over time, addressing the immediate behavioral excitement.
Question 4 of 5.
Which one of the following situations represents a maturational crisis for the family?
A. A four-year-old entering nursery school
B. Development of preeclampsia during pregnancy
C. Loss of employment and health benefits
D. Hospitalization of a grandfather with a stroke
Explanation: A maturational crisis involves normal developmental transitions, such as a child entering nursery school, which can stress family dynamics.
Question 5 of 5.
The nurse is making room assignments for four obstetrical clients. If only one private room is available, it should be assigned to:
A. A multigravida with diabetes mellitus
B. A primigravida with preeclampsia
C. A multigravida with preterm labor
D. A primigravida with hyperemesis gravidarum
Explanation: Preeclampsia requires close monitoring due to risks like seizures or stroke, making a private room essential for a primigravida with this condition.
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