Mock NCLEX RN Exam
Question 1 of 5.
A 20-year-old female client delivers a stillborn infant. Following the delivery, an appropriate response by the labor nurse to the question, 'Why did this happen to my baby?' is:
A. It's God's will. It was probably for the best. There was something probably wrong with your baby.'
B. You're young. You can have other children later.'
C. I know your other children will be a great comfort to you.'
D. I can see you're upset. Would you like to see and hold your baby?'
Explanation: The mother and the father require Wsupport; the nurse should not minimize their grief in this situation. Attachment to this infant occurs during the pregnancy for both the mother and father. Another child cannot replace this child. Attachment to this infant occurs during the pregnancy for both the mother and father. Siblings will not replace their feelings or minimize their loss of this infant. Holding and viewing the infant decreases denial and may facilitate the grief process. The nurse should prepare family members for how the infant appears ('she is bruised') and provide support.
Question 2 of 5.
The physician has ordered a low-residue diet for a client with Crohn's disease. Which food is not permitted in a low-residue diet?
A. Mashed potatoes
B. Smooth peanut butter
C. Fried fish
D. Rice
Explanation: A low-residue diet minimizes fiber and irritating foods; fried fish is high in fat and can irritate the gut, making it unsuitable for Crohn's disease.
Question 3 of 5.
The physician has ordered Eskalith (lithium carbonate) 500 mg three times a day and Risperdal (risperidone) 2 mg twice daily for a client admitted with bipolar disorder, acute manic episodes. The best explanation for the client's medication regimen is:
A. The client's symptoms of acute mania are typical of undiagnosed schizophrenia.
B. Antipsychotic medication is used to manage behavioral excitement until mood stabilization occurs.
C. The client will be more compliant with a medication that allows some feelings of hypomania.
D. Antipsychotic medication prevents psychotic symptoms commonly associated with the use of mood stabilizers.
Explanation: Risperidone, an antipsychotic, is used to control acute manic symptoms like agitation, while lithium stabilizes mood over time, addressing the immediate behavioral excitement.
Question 4 of 5.
Which one of the following situations represents a maturational crisis for the family?
A. A four-year-old entering nursery school
B. Development of preeclampsia during pregnancy
C. Loss of employment and health benefits
D. Hospitalization of a grandfather with a stroke
Explanation: A maturational crisis involves normal developmental transitions, such as a child entering nursery school, which can stress family dynamics.
Question 5 of 5.
The nurse is making room assignments for four obstetrical clients. If only one private room is available, it should be assigned to:
A. A multigravida with diabetes mellitus
B. A primigravida with preeclampsia
C. A multigravida with preterm labor
D. A primigravida with hyperemesis gravidarum
Explanation: Preeclampsia requires close monitoring due to risks like seizures or stroke, making a private room essential for a primigravida with this condition.
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