Mock NCLEX RN Exam
Question 1 of 5.
A 4-year-old child with a history of sickle cell anemia is admitted to the nursing unit with dizziness, shortness of breath, and pallor. Nursing assessment findings reveal tenderness in the abdomen. The child is most likely experiencing a/an:
A. Aplastic crisis
B. Vaso-occlusive crisis
C. Dactylitis crisis
D. Sequestration crisis
Explanation: Aplastic anemia is characterized by a lack of reticulocytes in the blood. Platelet and white blood cell counts are usually not depressed. It is usually self-limiting, lasting 5-10 days. Vaso-occlusive crisis is the most common type of crisis in sickle cell anemia. Sickled cells become clogged, leading to distal tissue hypoxia and infarction. Joints and extremities are the most commonly affected areas. Dactylitis crisis, or 'hand-foot syndrome,' causes symmetrical infarction of the bones in the hands and feet, resulting in painful swelling in the soft tissues of the hands and feet. Sequestration crisis occurs as enormous volumes of blood pool within the spleen. The spleen enlarges, causing tenderness. Signs of shock including pallor, tachypnea, and faintness result, related to the deficient intravascular volume. This type of crisis is potentially fatal.
Question 2 of 5.
The physician has ordered a low-residue diet for a client with Crohn's disease. Which food is not permitted in a low-residue diet?
A. Mashed potatoes
B. Smooth peanut butter
C. Fried fish
D. Rice
Explanation: A low-residue diet minimizes fiber and irritating foods; fried fish is high in fat and can irritate the gut, making it unsuitable for Crohn's disease.
Question 3 of 5.
The physician has ordered Eskalith (lithium carbonate) 500 mg three times a day and Risperdal (risperidone) 2 mg twice daily for a client admitted with bipolar disorder, acute manic episodes. The best explanation for the client's medication regimen is:
A. The client's symptoms of acute mania are typical of undiagnosed schizophrenia.
B. Antipsychotic medication is used to manage behavioral excitement until mood stabilization occurs.
C. The client will be more compliant with a medication that allows some feelings of hypomania.
D. Antipsychotic medication prevents psychotic symptoms commonly associated with the use of mood stabilizers.
Explanation: Risperidone, an antipsychotic, is used to control acute manic symptoms like agitation, while lithium stabilizes mood over time, addressing the immediate behavioral excitement.
Question 4 of 5.
Which one of the following situations represents a maturational crisis for the family?
A. A four-year-old entering nursery school
B. Development of preeclampsia during pregnancy
C. Loss of employment and health benefits
D. Hospitalization of a grandfather with a stroke
Explanation: A maturational crisis involves normal developmental transitions, such as a child entering nursery school, which can stress family dynamics.
Question 5 of 5.
The nurse is making room assignments for four obstetrical clients. If only one private room is available, it should be assigned to:
A. A multigravida with diabetes mellitus
B. A primigravida with preeclampsia
C. A multigravida with preterm labor
D. A primigravida with hyperemesis gravidarum
Explanation: Preeclampsia requires close monitoring due to risks like seizures or stroke, making a private room essential for a primigravida with this condition.
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