NCLEX Neurological Disorders
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Question 1 of 5.
The nurse is teaching the client who is scheduled for an outpatient EEG. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. Remove all hairpins before coming in for the EEG test.
B. Avoid eating or drinking at least 6 hours prior to the test.
C. Some hair will be removed with a razor to place electrodes.
D. Have blood drawn for a glucose level 2 hours before the test.
Explanation: In an EEG, electrodes are placed on the scalp over multiple areas of the brain to detect and record patterns of electrical activity. Preparation includes clean hair without any objects in the hair to prevent inaccurate test results. The client should not be NPO since a usual glucose level is important for normal brain functioning. The scalp will not be shaved; the electrodes are applied with paste. There is no indication to have a serum glucose drawn before the test.
Question 2 of 5.
A 78-year-old client is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with numbness and weakness of the left arm and slurred speech. Which nursing intervention is priority?
A. Prepare to administer recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rt-PA).
B. Discuss the precipitating factors that caused the symptoms.
C. Schedule for a STAT computed tomography (CT) scan of the head.
D. Notify the speech pathologist for an emergency consult.
Explanation: For a suspected stroke, the priority is to confirm the diagnosis and determine the type of stroke (ischemic or hemorrhagic) before initiating treatment. A STAT CT scan of the head is critical to rule out hemorrhagic stroke, which contraindicates thrombolytic therapy like rt-PA. Administering rt-PA without imaging could be harmful, discussing precipitating factors is not urgent, and a speech pathology consult is secondary to diagnostic imaging.
Question 3 of 5.
The nurse is planning care for a client experiencing agnosia secondary to a cerebrovascular accident. Which collaborative intervention will be included in the plan of care?
A. Observe the client swallowing for possible aspiration.
B. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position when sleeping.
C. Place a suction setup at the client's bedside during meals.
D. Refer the client to an occupational therapist for evaluation.
Explanation: Agnosia is the inability to recognize objects, people, or sounds, impacting functional abilities. Referring to an occupational therapist (D) is appropriate to assess and develop strategies for managing agnosia. Swallowing issues (A, C) are related to dysphagia, not agnosia, and semi-Fowler's position (B) is not specific to agnosia management.
Question 4 of 5.
The client is diagnosed with expressive aphasia. Which psychosocial client problem would the nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Potential for injury.
B. Powerlessness.
C. Disturbed thought processes.
D. Sexual dysfunction.
Explanation: Expressive aphasia impairs the ability to communicate, leading to frustration and feelings of powerlessness (B). Injury (A) is physical, disturbed thought processes (C) relate to cognition, and sexual dysfunction (D) is not directly linked to aphasia.
Question 5 of 5.
The client diagnosed with a mild concussion is being discharged from the emergency department. Which discharge instruction should the nurse teach the client's significant other?
A. Awaken the client every two (2) hours.
B. Monitor for increased intracranial pressure (ICP).
C. Observe frequently for hypervigilance.
D. Offer the client food every three (3) to four (4) hours.
Explanation: For a mild concussion, monitoring for worsening neurological status is key. Awakening every 2 hours (A) allows assessment for altered consciousness. Monitoring ICP (B) is complex and not feasible at home, hypervigilance (C) is not typical, and frequent feeding (D) is unnecessary.
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