NCLEX Pharmacology Questions
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Question 1 of 5.
The client diagnosed with Parkinson's disease is taking levodopa (L-dopa) and is experiencing an 'on/off' effect. Which action should the nurse take regarding this medication?
A. Document the occurrence and take no action.
B. Request the HCP to increase the dose of medication.
C. Discuss the client's imminent death as a result of this complication.
D. Explain this is a desired effect of the medication.
Explanation: The on/off effect is a known levodopa issue; documenting monitors progression without immediate action. Increasing dose, death discussions, or calling it desired are incorrect.
Question 2 of 5.
The client diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is receiving the aminoglycoside antibiotic vancomycin. Peak and trough levels are ordered for the dose the nurse is administering. Which priority intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Ask the client if he has had any diarrhea.
B. Monitor the aminoglycoside peak level.
C. Determine if the trough level has been drawn.
D. Check the client's culture and sensitivity report.
Explanation: Trough levels must be drawn before the next vancomycin dose to ensure therapeutic levels and avoid toxicity; this is the priority. Diarrhea, peak levels, or culture reports are secondary.
Question 3 of 5.
The nurse is administering the long-acting insulin glargine (Lantus) to the client at 2200. The nurse asks the charge nurse to check the dosage. Which action should the charge nurse implement?
A. Ask the nurse why the insulin is being given late.
B. Check the MAR versus the dosage in the syringe.
C. Instruct the nurse to complete a medication error form.
D. Have the nurse notify the health-care provider.
Explanation: Verifying MAR against syringe dosage ensures accuracy, per safety protocols. Timing questions, error forms, or HCP notification are unnecessary unless errors occur.
Question 4 of 5.
The client is receiving the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor enalapril (Vasotec). When would the nurse question administering this medication?
A. The client is not receiving potassium supplements.
B. The client complains of a persistent irritating cough.
C. The blood pressure for two (2) consecutive readings is 110/70.
D. The client's urinary output is 400 mL for the last eight (8) hours.
Explanation: A persistent cough is a common ACE inhibitor side effect, warranting discontinuation or HCP evaluation. Potassium, BP, or urine output are less critical.
Question 5 of 5.
The elderly male client is admitted for acute severe diverticulitis. He has been taking Xanax, a benzodiazepine, for nervousness three (3) to four (4) times a day prn for six (6) years. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Prepare to administer an intravenous antianxiety medication.
B. Notify the HCP to obtain an order for the client's Xanax prn.
C. Explain Xanax causes addiction and he should quit taking it.
D. Assess for signs/symptoms of medication withdrawal.
Explanation: Long-term Xanax use risks dependence; assessing withdrawal (e.g., agitation, seizures) is the priority during acute illness to guide safe management.
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