logo

Question 1 of 5.

The 42-year-old client who had a partial hydatidiform molar pregnancy 3 months ago asks the nurse whether she and her husband can try conceiving again. Which response by the nurse is incorrect and warrants follow-up action by the observing nurse manager?

A. “You will need serial levels of beta human chorionic gonadotropin (BHCG) drawn.”

B. “You cannot conceive ever again because of your risk of choriocarcinoma.”

C. “You should not become pregnant yet for 6 to 12 months.”

D. “Your risk of another hydatidiform molar pregnancy is low.”

Explanation: Women who have had a molar pregnancy can conceive again once their BHCG levels are normal and remain normal for a certain time period, usually 6 to 12 months. This response by the nurse is incorrect and should be followed up by the observing nurse manager. Because of the risk of choriocarcinoma, serial serum BHCG testing is completed after a hydatidiform molar pregnancy. Because the client will undergo serial serum BHCG testing after a hydatidiform molar pregnancy, she should not get pregnant for 6 to 12 months until testing is completed and it is confirmed that she does not have a malignancy. Couples with a past history of molar pregnancy have the same statistical chance of conceiving again and having a normal pregnancy as those without.

Question 2 of 5.

The nurse correctly explains that the bleeding is the result of sloughing of which structure?

A. Endometrium

B. Myometrium

C. Epimetrium

D. None of the above

Explanation: Menstrual bleeding occurs due to the sloughing of the endometrium, the inner lining of the uterus, when pregnancy does not occur.

Question 3 of 5.

On the basis of this finding, the nurse can assume that the client is at least how many months' pregnant?

A. 5 months

B. 6 months

C. 7 months

D. 8 months

Explanation: Ballottement, the rebound of the fetus when the cervix is tapped, is typically detectable around 4-5 months, indicating at least 5 months' gestation.

Question 4 of 5.

The nurse correctly assists the client into which position?

A. Lithotomy

B. Prone

C. Sims'

D. Trendelenburg's

Explanation: The lithotomy position, with legs elevated and apart, is standard for pelvic examinations to provide access to the pelvic area.

Question 5 of 5.

Which response by the nurse is most accurate?

A. Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) test can detect this defect.

B. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) test can detect this defect.

C. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test can detect this defect.

D. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test can detect this defect.

Explanation: The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test screens for neural tube defects like spina bifida by measuring AFP levels.

GET IN TOUCH

+012 345 67890

support@examlin.com

Privacy

Terms

FAQS

Help


© Examlin.All Rights Reserved.