NCLEX RN Questions Medical Surgical Nursing
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Question 1 of 5.
Postoperative nursing management of the client following a radical neck dissection for laryngeal cancer requires:
A. Complete bed rest minimizing head movement.
B. Vital signs once a shift.
C. A. All the nurse should be made to be removed at 48 hours.
D. Frequent suctioning of the laryngectomy tube.
Explanation: Frequent suctioning of the laryngectomy tube prevents mucus buildup and maintains airway patency. Complete bed rest is unnecessary; early mobility is encouraged. Vital signs should be monitored more frequently than once per shift. The third option is unclear but likely incorrect.
Question 2 of 5.
A client has chest pain rated at 8 on a 10 point visual analog scale. The 12-lead electrocardiogram reveals ST elevation in the inferior leads and Troponin levels are elevated. What is the highest priority for nursing management of this client at this time?
A. Monitor daily weights and urine output.
B. Permit unrestricted visitation by family and friends.
C. Provide client education on medications and diet.
D. Reduce pain and myocardial oxygen demand.
Explanation: The client is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction, indicated by ST elevation and elevated troponin. Reducing pain and myocardial oxygen demand is critical to minimize further cardiac damage.
Question 3 of 5.
When teaching the client with myocardial infarction (MI), the nurse explains that the pain associated with MI is caused by:
A. Left ventricular overload.
B. Impending circulatory collapse.
C. Extracellular electrolyte imbalances.
D. Insufficient oxygen reaching the heart muscle.
Explanation: MI pain results from myocardial ischemia due to insufficient oxygen delivery to the heart muscle, caused by coronary artery occlusion.
Question 4 of 5.
Crackles heard on lung auscultation indicate which of the following?
A. Cyanosis.
B. Bronchospasm.
C. Airway narrowing.
D. Fluid-filled alveoli.
Explanation: Crackles indicate fluid in the alveoli, often due to pulmonary edema in heart failure or post-MI, reflecting left ventricular dysfunction.
Question 5 of 5.
A client with chronic heart failure has atrial fibrillation and a left ventricular ejection fraction of 15%. The client is taking warfarin (Coumadin). The expected outcome of this drug is to:
A. Decrease circulatory overload.
B. Improve the myocardial workload.
C. Prevent thrombus formation.
D. Regulate cardiac rhythm.
Explanation: Warfarin prevents thrombus formation, critical in atrial fibrillation and low ejection fraction, which increase clot risk due to stasis.