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Question 1 of 5.

At the last vaginal exam, the client who is in the late first stage of labor was fully effaced, 8 cm dilated, vertex presentation, and station -1. Which observation would indicate that the fetus was in fetal distress?

A. The fetal heart rate slowly drops to 110 beats/min during strong contractions, recovering to 138 beats/min immediately afterward.

B. Fresh meconium is found on the examiner's gloved fingers after a vaginal exam, and the fetal monitor pattern remains essentially unchanged.

C. Fresh, thick meconium is passed with a small gush of liquid, and the fetal monitor shows late decelerations with a variable descending baseline.

D. The vaginal exam continues to reveal some old meconium staining, and the fetal monitor demonstrates a U-shaped pattern of deceleration during contractions, recovering to a baseline of 140 beats/min.

Explanation: Meconium staining alone is not a sign of fetal distress. Meconium passage is a normal physiological function that is frequently noted with a fetus of more than 38 weeks' gestation. Fresh meconium, in combination with late decelerations and a variable descending baseline, is an ominous signal of fetal distress caused by fetal hypoxia. It is not unusual for the fetal heart rate to drop to less than the 140 to 160 beats/min range in late labor during contractions, and, in a healthy fetus, the fetal heart rate will recover between contractions. Old meconium staining may be the result of a prenatal trauma that is resolved.

Question 2 of 5.

A client had arterial blood gases drawn. The results are a pH of 7.34, a partial pressure of carbon dioxide of 37 mm Hg (37 mm Hg), a partial pressure of oxygen of 79 mm Hg (79 mm Hg), and a bicarbonate level of 19 mEq/L (19 mmol/L). Which disorder should the nurse interpret that the client is experiencing?

A. Metabolic acidosis

B. Metabolic alkalosis

C. Respiratory acidosis

D. Respiratory alkalosis

Explanation: Metabolic acidosis occurs when the pH falls to less than 7.35 and the bicarbonate level falls to less than 22 mEq/L (22 mmol/L). With metabolic alkalosis, the pH rises to more than 7.45 and the bicarbonate level rises to more than 27 mEq/L (27 mmol/L). With respiratory acidosis, the pH drops to less than 7.35 and the carbon dioxide level rises to more than 45 mm Hg. With respiratory alkalosis, the pH rises to more than 7.45 and the carbon dioxide level falls to less than 35 mm Hg.

Question 3 of 5.

The nurse caring for a child diagnosed with kidney disease is analyzing the child's laboratory results and notes a sodium level of 148 mEq/L (148 mmol/L). On the basis of this finding, which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to note in the child?

A. Lethargy

B. Diaphoresis

C. Cold, wet skin

D. Dry, sticky mucous membranes

Explanation: Hypernatremia occurs when the sodium level is more than 145 mEq/L (145 mmol/L). Clinical manifestations include intense thirst, oliguria, agitation, restlessness, flushed skin, peripheral and pulmonary edema, dry and sticky mucous membranes, nausea, and vomiting. None of the remaining options are associated with the clinical manifestations of hypernatremia.

Question 4 of 5.

The nurse is caring for an infant admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of hemolytic disease. Which finding should the nurse expect to note in this infant when reviewing the laboratory results?

A. Decreased bilirubin count

B. Elevated blood glucose level

C. Decreased red blood cell count

D. Decreased white blood cell count

Explanation: The two primary pathophysiological alterations associated with hemolytic disease are anemia and hyperbilirubinemia. The red blood cell count is decreased because red blood cell production cannot keep pace with red blood cell destruction. Hyperbilirubinemia results from the red blood cell destruction that accompanies this disorder and from the normally decreased ability of the neonate's liver to conjugate and excrete bilirubin efficiently from the body. Hypoglycemia is associated with hypertrophy of the pancreatic islet cells and increased levels of insulin. The white blood cell count is not related to this disorder.

Question 5 of 5.

Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) therapy is prescribed for a child diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). What are the expected results of this medication?

A. Urine positive for glucose and negative for protein

B. Urine specific gravity of 1.020 and negative for red blood cells

C. White blood cell count 18,000 mm^3 (18 × 10^9/L) and platelets 355,000 mm^3 (355 × 10^9/L)

D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 22 mg/dL (7.92 mmol/L) and creatinine levels of 2.1 mg/dL (185 mcmol/L)

Explanation: IVIG is usually effective to rapidly increase the platelet count. It is thought to act by interfering with the attachment of antibody-coded platelets to receptors on the macrophage cells of the reticuloendothelial system. Corticosteroids may be prescribed to enhance vascular stability and decrease the production of antiplatelet antibodies. Based on this information, the remaining options are unrelated to the administration of this medication.

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