Maternity Questions NCLEX RN Quizlet
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Question 1 of 5.
A full-term client is admitted for an induction of labor. The health care provider has assigned a Bishop score of 10. Which drug would the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
A. Oxytocin (Pitocin) 10 units in 500 mL D5W.
B. Prostaglandin gel (Prepidil) 0.5 mg.
C. Misoprostol (Cytotec) 50 mcg P.O.
D. Dinoprostone (Cervidil) 10 mg.
Explanation: A Bishop score of 10 indicates a favorable cervix for induction, so oxytocin (Pitocin) is appropriate to initiate contractions. Prostaglandins (Prepidil, Cervidil, Cytotec) are used for cervical ripening when the cervix is unfavorable.
Question 2 of 5.
A client has obtained Plan B (levonorgestrel 0.75 mg, 2 tablets) as emergency contraception. After unprotected intercourse, the client calls the clinic to ask questions about taking the contraceptives. The nurse realizes the client needs further explanation when she makes which of the following responses?
A. I can wait 3 to 4 days after intercourse to start taking these to prevent pregnancy.
B. My boyfriend can buy Plan B from the pharmacy if he is over 18 years old.
C. The birth control works by preventing ovulation or fertilization of the egg.
D. I can be discussed and have breast tenderness or a headache after using the contraceptive.
Explanation: Plan B is most effective when taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse, ideally as soon as possible. Waiting 3 to 4 days reduces its efficacy, indicating a need for further explanation.
Question 3 of 5.
A 39-year-old multigravid client asks the nurse for information about female sterilization with a tubal ligation. Which of the following client statements indicates effective teaching?
A. My fallopian tubes will be tied off through a small abdominal incision.
B. Reversal of a tubal ligation is easily done, with a subsequent pregnancy rate of 80%.
C. The tubal ligation will decrease my risk of getting ovarian cancer.
D. The tubal ligation will cause me to go through menopause earlier than usual.
Explanation: Tubal ligation involves blocking or tying the fallopian tubes, often through a small abdominal incision. Reversal is complex with lower success rates, it does not significantly reduce ovarian cancer risk, and it does not affect menopause timing.
Question 4 of 5.
A client who is considering a contraceptive implant asks the nurse about its advantages. Which of the following would the nurse include in the response?
A. It provides protection against sexually transmitted infections.
B. It is effective for up to 3 years and is reversible.
C. It requires daily administration for effectiveness.
D. It is suitable for women with a history of blood clots.
Explanation: The contraceptive implant is effective for up to 3 years and is reversible, making it a long-acting, convenient option. It does not protect against STIs, is not taken daily, and is generally safe for women with clotting risks as it is progestin-only.
Question 5 of 5.
A nurse is teaching a client about the withdrawal method of contraception. Which of the following statements by the nurse is accurate?
A. The withdrawal method is highly effective when performed correctly.
B. The withdrawal method does not protect against STIs and has a high failure rate.
C. The withdrawal method requires medical supervision for effectiveness.
D. The withdrawal method is more effective than condoms.
Explanation: The withdrawal method does not protect against STIs and has a high failure rate due to pre-ejaculate containing sperm and reliance on timing. It does not require medical supervision and is less effective than condoms.
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