Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing NCLEX RN Questions Part 2
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Question 1 of 5.
A client is being admitted to the hospital following an inadvertent overdose with hydrocodone (Vicodin). He reveals that he has chronic back pain which resulted from an injury on a construction site. He states, 'I know I took too much Vicodin at once, but I can't live with this pain without them. You can't take them away from me.' Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Once you are tapered off the Vicodin, you will find that non-addictive pain medicines will be enough to control your pain.'
B. You are going to be switched from the Vicodin to methadone (Dolophine) for long-term pain management.'
C. The Vicodin will be stopped tomorrow, but you will have lorazepam (Ativan) to help you with the withdrawal symptoms.'
D. Your pain will be controlled by tapering doses of propoxyphene (Darvon-N), with other pain management strategies and medicines.'
Explanation: Saying non-addictive pain medicines will control pain after tapering is appropriate, as it addresses the overdose, promotes safer alternatives, and supports pain management.
Question 2 of 5.
A client has been taking 30 mg of duloxetine hydrochloride (Cymbalta) twice daily for 2 months because of depression and vague aches and pains. While interacting with the nurse, the client discloses a pattern of drinking a 6-pack of beer daily for the past 10 years to help with sleep. What should the nurse do first?
A. Refer the client to the dual diagnosis program at the clinic.
B. Share the information at the next interdisciplinary treatment conference.
C. Report the client's beer consumption to the physician.
D. Teach the client relaxation exercises to perform before bedtime.
Explanation: Reporting alcohol use to the physician is critical due to potential interactions with Cymbalta, which can increase liver risks or exacerbate depression.
Question 3 of 5.
The nurse is assessing the outcomes of care for a client who has an Axis I diagnosis of major depression. Following the initiation of treatment, arrange the symptoms in chronological order from the one that improves first to the one that improves last.
- A. Self-esteem.
- B. Sleep.
- C. Energy level.
- D. Appetite.
- B. Sleep.
- D. Appetite.
- C. Energy level.
- A. Self-esteem.
Correct arrangement
Explanation: Depression treatment typically improves sleep first, followed by appetite, energy level, and finally self-esteem, which takes longer to recover.
Question 4 of 5.
A 62-year-old female client with severe depression and psychotic symptoms is scheduled for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) tomorrow morning. The client's daughter asks the nurse, 'How painful will the treatment be for Mom?' The nurse should respond by saying which of the following?
A. Your mother will be given something for pain before the treatment.'
B. The physician will make sure your mother doesn't suffer needlessly.'
C. Your mother will be asleep during the treatment and will not be in pain.'
D. Your mother will be able to talk to us and tell us if she's in pain.'
Explanation: ECT is performed under anesthesia, ensuring the client is unconscious and feels no pain during the procedure.
Question 5 of 5.
The client with recurring depression will be discharged to the community in a few days. Which of the following is the best approach for the nurse to help the family prepare for the client's return home?
A. Discourage visitors while the client is at home.
B. Provide for a schedule of activities outside the home.
C. Involve the client in usual at-home activities.
D. Encourage the client to sleep as much as possible.
Explanation: Involving the client in usual activities promotes normalcy and recovery, balancing rest and engagement.
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