Psychiatric NCLEX RN Questions
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Question 1 of 5.
A client is admitted to the psychiatric hospital for evaluation after numerous incidents of threatening others, angry outbursts, and two episodes of hitting a coworker at the grocery store where he works. The client is very anxious and tells the nurse who admits him, 'I didn't mean to hit him. He made me so mad I didn't know what to do.' Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention?
A. Teach the client anger management techniques.
B. Administer an anxiolytic medication.
C. Place the client in a supervised group therapy session.
D. Establish a no harm contract with the client.
Explanation: Teaching anger management techniques is the priority to address the client's inability to control violent outbursts, providing tools to manage anger proactively. Anxiolytics may help anxiety but not the root issue, group therapy is secondary, and a no harm contract addresses safety but not skill-building.
Question 2 of 5.
The client is taking 50 mg of lamotrigine (Lamictal) daily for bipolar depression. The client shows the nurse a rash on his arm. What should the nurse do?
A. Report the rash to the physician.
B. Explain that the rash is a temporary adverse effect.
C. Give the client an ice pack for his arm.
D. Question the client about recent sun exposure.
Explanation: A rash with Lamictal may indicate a serious reaction like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, requiring immediate physician notification.
Question 3 of 5.
The client exhibits a flat affect, psychomotor retardation, and depressed mood. The nurse attempts to engage the client in an interaction but the client does not respond to the nurse. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. I'll sit here with you for 15 minutes.'
B. I'll come back a little bit later to talk.'
C. I'll find someone else for you to talk with.'
D. I'll get you something to read.'
Explanation: Sitting quietly with the client provides presence and support, respecting their current inability to engage.
Question 4 of 5.
During an interaction with the nurse, a client states, 'My husband has supported me every time I've been hospitalized for depression. He'll leave me this time. I'm an awful wife and mother. I'm no good. Nothing I do is right.' Based on this information, which of the following nursing diagnoses should the nurse identify when developing the client's plan of care?
A. Impaired social interaction related to unsatisfactory relationships as evidenced by withdrawal.
B. Chronic low self-esteem related to lack of self-worth as evidenced by negative self-statements.
C. Risk for self-directed violence related to feelings of guilt as evidenced by statements of suicidal ideation.
D. Ineffective coping related to hospitalizations as evidenced by impaired judgment.
Explanation: The client's negative self-statements directly indicate chronic low self-esteem, a priority nursing diagnosis.
Question 5 of 5.
The client who has been taking venlafaxine (Effexor) 25 mg P.O. three times a day for the past 2 days states, 'This medicine isn't doing me any good. I'm still so depressed.' Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. I'm sure the medicine will help you soon.'
B. It usually takes about 2 to 4 weeks for the medicine to work.'
C. Maybe the doctor will change your medicine.'
D. Tell me more about how you're feeling.'
Explanation: Explaining the 2–4 week onset of antidepressants sets realistic expectations and encourages adherence.
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