logo

RN NCLEX Maternal Neonatal Nursing

Home / Nursing & Allied Health Certifications / NCLEX RN / RN Maternity

Question 1 of 5.

A 28-year-old multigravid client at 28 weeks' gestation diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis is receiving intravenous fluids and antibiotics. After teaching the client about the rationale for the aggressive therapy, the nurse determines that the client needs further instruction when she says that acute pyelonephritis can lead to which of the following?

A. Preterm labor.

B. Maternal sepsis.

C. Intrauterine growth retardation.

D. Congenital fetal anomalies.

Explanation: Acute pyelonephritis can cause preterm labor, maternal sepsis, and intrauterine growth retardation due to infection and inflammation. Congenital fetal anomalies are not a direct consequence, indicating a need for further teaching.

Question 2 of 5.

After the nurse instructs a 20-year-old nulligravid client on how to perform a breast self-examination, which of the following client statements indicates that the teaching has been successful?

A. I should perform breast self-examination on the day my menstrual flow begins.

B. It's important that I perform breast self-examination on the same day each month.

C. If I notice that one of my breasts is much smaller than the other, I shouldn't worry.

D. If there is discharge from my nipples, I should call my health care provider.

Explanation: Breast self-examination should be performed about a week after the menstrual period begins, when breasts are least tender. Noticing nipple discharge is a concerning symptom that warrants contacting a healthcare provider, indicating successful teaching.

Question 3 of 5.

The nurse is teaching a group of women about fertility awareness methods of contraception. Which of the following would the nurse include as the most reliable indicator that ovulation has occurred?

A. A slight drop followed by a rise in basal body temperature.

B. A change in cervical mucus to thin, clear, and stretchy.

C. The onset of mittelschmerz, or midcycle pelvic pain.

D. The presence of a thick, cloudy cervical mucus.

Explanation: A slight drop followed by a rise in basal body temperature is the most reliable indicator of ovulation, as it reflects the hormonal shift post-ovulation. Cervical mucus changes and mittelschmerz are less precise, and thick mucus typically occurs post-ovulation.

Question 4 of 5.

A client asks about the side effects of oral contraceptives. Which of the following would the nurse include in the response?

A. Weight loss is a common side effect.

B. Nausea and breast tenderness may occur initially.

C. Hair loss is frequently reported.

D. Oral contraceptives decrease the risk of breast cancer.

Explanation: Nausea and breast tenderness are common initial side effects of oral contraceptives, which often subside. Weight gain, not loss, may occur, hair loss is not typical, and oral contraceptives do not significantly reduce breast cancer risk.

Question 5 of 5.

A nurse is discussing sterilization options with a male client. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

A. A vasectomy involves cutting the vas deferens to prevent sperm release.

B. I will need to use another contraceptive method until my sperm count is zero.

C. A vasectomy will decrease my testosterone levels.

D. A vasectomy is considered a permanent form of contraception.

Explanation: A vasectomy does not decrease testosterone levels, as the testes continue to produce hormones. The other statements are correct, indicating a need for further teaching about hormonal effects.

GET IN TOUCH

+012 345 67890

support@examlin.com

Privacy

Terms

FAQS

Help


© Examlin.All Rights Reserved.