Practice NCLEX PN Questions
Question 1 of 5.
The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a 4-year-old client with failure to thrive. Which of the following risk factors likely contribute to the client's condition? Select all that apply.
A. Child is the youngest of four children in the home
B. One parent is incarcerated for spousal abuse
C. One parent was diagnosed with anorexia nervosa prior to having children
D. One parent works a full-time job outside the home
E. Parents are concerned about not having enough money to buy food
Explanation: FTT risk factors include parental incarceration causing family stress, a history of anorexia nervosa affecting feeding practices, and food insecurity . Being the youngest or a working parent are not direct risks.
Question 2 of 5.
The nurse is discussing mammogram screening with a family. No one in the family has had a mammogram. The mother is 52, there are four daughters, ages 10, 15, 21, and 34, and the grandmother is 75. Which of the following women should receive a mammogram? Select all that apply.
A. The 10-year old daughter
B. The 15-year old daughter
C. The 21-year old daughter
D. The 34-year old daughter
E. The 52-year old mother
F. The 75-year-old grandmother
Explanation: Women aged 40 and older, or earlier with risk factors, should have mammograms. The 34-year-old, 52-year-old, and 75-year-old women meet screening age criteria.
Question 3 of 5.
The nurse is caring for an adult who is receiving diphenoxylate hydrochloride with atropine sulfate (Lomotil) qid. What nursing assessment is essential while the client is receiving this medication?
A. Monitor blood pressure hourly
B. Assess respirations before administering drug
C. Measure hourly urine output
D. Do neuro checks every two hours
Explanation: Lomotil can cause respiratory depression due to its opioid component, requiring respiratory assessment before administration.
Question 4 of 5.
An adult male has an IV in the left arm. The client calls the nurse and says that his left arm hurts. The LPN checks the IV site and notes that it is cool and blanched and not running well. What should the LPN do at this time?
A. Flush the IV with normal saline
B. Remove the IV immediately and start a new line
C. Tell the charge nurse that the client's IV appears to be infiltrated
D. Ask the charge nurse to check to see if the client has phlebitis
Explanation: Cool, blanched skin and poor flow indicate infiltration; removing the IV and starting a new line prevents tissue damage.
Question 5 of 5.
Diltiazem (Cardizem) 90 mg qid is prescribed for an adult who has angina. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?
A. I will take the pills before meals and at bedtime.
B. I will call my physician if the pain gets worse than it has been.
C. If my heart rate is less than 70, I will not take the pill.
D. I will get up slowly when I stand up.
Explanation: Diltiazem is not typically withheld based on heart rate alone unless specified; this indicates a need for clarification on administration instructions.
Related Questions
The nurse notes all of the following. Which should be attended to first?