Practice NCLEX PN Questions
Question 1 of 5.
The nurse is caring for a client who is in the first stage of labor and is reporting intense back pain with contractions. The fetal position is determined to be right occiput posterior. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Place the client in the supine position
B. Apply counterpressure to the client's sacrum during contractions
C. Encourage the client to remain in bed
D. Request that the nurse anesthetist administer epidural anesthesia
Explanation: For back pain in labor with a right occiput posterior position, applying counterpressure to the sacrum relieves discomfort. Supine position worsens pain, bed rest limits mobility, and epidural is not the first intervention.
Question 2 of 5.
The nurse is discussing mammogram screening with a family. No one in the family has had a mammogram. The mother is 52, there are four daughters, ages 10, 15, 21, and 34, and the grandmother is 75. Which of the following women should receive a mammogram? Select all that apply.
A. The 10-year old daughter
B. The 15-year old daughter
C. The 21-year old daughter
D. The 34-year old daughter
E. The 52-year old mother
F. The 75-year-old grandmother
Explanation: Women aged 40 and older, or earlier with risk factors, should have mammograms. The 34-year-old, 52-year-old, and 75-year-old women meet screening age criteria.
Question 3 of 5.
The nurse is caring for an adult who is receiving diphenoxylate hydrochloride with atropine sulfate (Lomotil) qid. What nursing assessment is essential while the client is receiving this medication?
A. Monitor blood pressure hourly
B. Assess respirations before administering drug
C. Measure hourly urine output
D. Do neuro checks every two hours
Explanation: Lomotil can cause respiratory depression due to its opioid component, requiring respiratory assessment before administration.
Question 4 of 5.
An adult male has an IV in the left arm. The client calls the nurse and says that his left arm hurts. The LPN checks the IV site and notes that it is cool and blanched and not running well. What should the LPN do at this time?
A. Flush the IV with normal saline
B. Remove the IV immediately and start a new line
C. Tell the charge nurse that the client's IV appears to be infiltrated
D. Ask the charge nurse to check to see if the client has phlebitis
Explanation: Cool, blanched skin and poor flow indicate infiltration; removing the IV and starting a new line prevents tissue damage.
Question 5 of 5.
Diltiazem (Cardizem) 90 mg qid is prescribed for an adult who has angina. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?
A. I will take the pills before meals and at bedtime.
B. I will call my physician if the pain gets worse than it has been.
C. If my heart rate is less than 70, I will not take the pill.
D. I will get up slowly when I stand up.
Explanation: Diltiazem is not typically withheld based on heart rate alone unless specified; this indicates a need for clarification on administration instructions.
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