NCLEX RN Predictor Exam
Question 1 of 5.
The mother of a two-year-old with burns over 40% of the body asks the nurse how long it will take for the burns to heal. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that second-degree burns require:
A. 7–10 days
B. 10–14 days
C. 14–21 days
D. More than a month
Explanation: Second-degree burns, affecting the epidermis and dermis, typically heal in 14–21 days with proper care. Healing time depends on depth and infection control, but 14–21 days is standard.
Question 2 of 5.
A diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is often delayed because of the varied symptoms experienced by those affected with the disease. Which symptom is most common in those with multiple sclerosis?
A. Resting tremors
B. Double vision
C. Flaccid paralysis
D. Pill-rolling tremors
Explanation: Double vision (diplopia) is a common early symptom of multiple sclerosis due to demyelination affecting the optic nerves or brainstem.
Question 3 of 5.
A child with Down syndrome has a developmental age of four years. According to the Denver Developmental Assessment, the four-year-old should be able to:
A. Draw a man in six parts
B. Give his first and last name
C. Dress without supervision
D. Define a list of words
Explanation: Per the Denver Developmental Screening Test, a four-year-old should be able to state their first and last name, a milestone achievable despite Down syndrome delays.
Question 4 of 5.
Parents of a toddler are dismayed when they learn that their child has Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Which statement describes the inheritance pattern of the disorder?
A. An affected gene is located on one of the 21 pairs of autosomes.
B. The disorder is caused by an over-replication of the X chromosome in males.
C. The affected gene is located on the Y chromosome of the father.
D. The affected gene is located on the X chromosome of the mother.
Explanation: Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, with the affected gene on the mother's X chromosome, primarily affecting males.
Question 5 of 5.
The physician has ordered an infusion of Osmitrol (mannitol) for a client with increased intracranial pressure. Which finding indicates the direct effectiveness of the drug?
A. Increased pulse rate
B. Increased urinary output
C. Decreased diastolic blood pressure
D. Increased pupil size
Explanation: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that reduces intracranial pressure by increasing urinary output, drawing fluid from the brain.