Mock NCLEX RN Exam
Question 1 of 5.
A client requires log rolling after back surgery. Correctly provide the sequence of steps the nurse should follow when performing the procedure.
- A. Obtain assistance; three nurses are preferable.
- B. Maintain client's position in alignment with pillows.
- C. Position two nurses on the side the client will be turned to and the third nurse on the opposite side of the bed.
- D. Designate the person at the head of the bed to be in charge of coordinating the move.
- E. Place a pillow between the client's knees.
- F. Move the client in one coordinated movement when the nurse at the head of the bed signals to move the client.
- G. Instruct the client to place the arms across the chest.
- A. Obtain assistance; three nurses are preferable.
- C. Position two nurses on the side the client will be turned to and the third nurse on the opposite side of the bed.
- D. Designate the person at the head of the bed to be in charge of coordinating the move.
- G. Instruct the client to place the arms across the chest.
- E. Place a pillow between the client's knees.
- B. Maintain client's position in alignment with pillows.
- F. Move the client in one coordinated movement when the nurse at the head of the bed signals to move the client.
Correct arrangement
Explanation: Log rolling sequence: Obtain assistance (A), position nurses (C), designate leader (D), instruct arm placement (G), place pillow (E), align with pillows (B), move coordinately (F).
Question 2 of 5.
The physician has ordered a low-residue diet for a client with Crohn's disease. Which food is not permitted in a low-residue diet?
A. Mashed potatoes
B. Smooth peanut butter
C. Fried fish
D. Rice
Explanation: A low-residue diet minimizes fiber and irritating foods; fried fish is high in fat and can irritate the gut, making it unsuitable for Crohn's disease.
Question 3 of 5.
The physician has ordered Eskalith (lithium carbonate) 500 mg three times a day and Risperdal (risperidone) 2 mg twice daily for a client admitted with bipolar disorder, acute manic episodes. The best explanation for the client's medication regimen is:
A. The client's symptoms of acute mania are typical of undiagnosed schizophrenia.
B. Antipsychotic medication is used to manage behavioral excitement until mood stabilization occurs.
C. The client will be more compliant with a medication that allows some feelings of hypomania.
D. Antipsychotic medication prevents psychotic symptoms commonly associated with the use of mood stabilizers.
Explanation: Risperidone, an antipsychotic, is used to control acute manic symptoms like agitation, while lithium stabilizes mood over time, addressing the immediate behavioral excitement.
Question 4 of 5.
Which one of the following situations represents a maturational crisis for the family?
A. A four-year-old entering nursery school
B. Development of preeclampsia during pregnancy
C. Loss of employment and health benefits
D. Hospitalization of a grandfather with a stroke
Explanation: A maturational crisis involves normal developmental transitions, such as a child entering nursery school, which can stress family dynamics.
Question 5 of 5.
The nurse is making room assignments for four obstetrical clients. If only one private room is available, it should be assigned to:
A. A multigravida with diabetes mellitus
B. A primigravida with preeclampsia
C. A multigravida with preterm labor
D. A primigravida with hyperemesis gravidarum
Explanation: Preeclampsia requires close monitoring due to risks like seizures or stroke, making a private room essential for a primigravida with this condition.
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