NCLEX RN Practice Questions PDF
Question 1 of 5.
A client has had a recent below-knee (BK) amputation of the right leg because of a traumatic injury. After removing the elastic wrap, which the client had applied, the nurse notes an unusual pattern of swelling. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this observation?
A. Wound infection
B. Impaired circulation to the stump
C. Incorrect wrap technique
D. Bleeding into the tissues
Explanation: An unusual swelling pattern after removing an elastic wrap suggests incorrect wrap technique (C), which can cause uneven pressure. Infection (A), impaired circulation (B), or bleeding (D) would present differently.
Question 2 of 5.
A 23-year-old woman at 32-weeks gestation is seen in the outpatient clinic. Which of the following findings, if assessed by the nurse, would indicate a possible complication?
A. The client’s urine test is positive for glucose and acetone.
B. The client has 1+ pedal edema in both feet at the end of the day.
C. The client complains of an increase in vaginal discharge.
D. The client says she feels pressure against her diaphragm when the baby moves.
Explanation: abnormal finding, could indicate gestational diabetes (GDM), hazard of placental insufficiency
Question 3 of 5.
The nurse is monitoring a client’s EKG strip and notes coupled premature ventricular contractions greater than 10 per minute. The nurse should expect to administer which of the following?
A. Atropine sulfate (Atropine) IV.
B. Isoproterenol (Isuprel) IV.
C. Verapamil (Calan) IV.
D. Lidocaine hydrochloride (Xylocaine) IV.
Explanation: Lidocaine is the drug of choice for frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVC) occurring in excess of 6-10 per minute; for coupled PVCs or for a consecutive series of PVCs that may result in ventricular tachycardia
Question 4 of 5.
An 8-year-old client is returned to the recovery room after a bronchoscopy. The nurse should position the client
A. in semi-Fowler’s position.
B. prone, with the head turned to the side.
C. with the head of the bed elevated 45° and the neck extended.
D. supine, with the head in the midline position.
Explanation: check vital signs every 15 minutes until stable, assess for respiratory difficulty (stridor and dyspnea resulting from laryngeal edema or laryngospasm)
Question 5 of 5.
A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg three times daily. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following side effects to the physician?
A. Mild nausea after taking the medication.
B. Gingival hyperplasia and rash.
C. Slight drowsiness in the morning.
D. Increased appetite and weight gain.
Explanation: gingival hyperplasia and rash are significant side effects of phenytoin that require medical attention
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