NCLEX RN Predictor Exam
Question 1 of 5.
A 47-year-old male client is admitted for colon surgery. Intravenous antibiotics are begun 2 hours prior to surgery. He has no known infection. The rationale for giving antibiotics prior to surgery is to:
A. Provide cathartic action within the colon
B. Reduce the risk of wound infection from anaerobic bacteria
C. Relieve the client's concern regarding possible infection
D. Reduce the risk of intraoperative fever
Explanation: Cathartic drugs promote evacuation of intestinal contents. The client undergoing intestinal surgery is at increased risk for infection from large numbers of anaerobic bacteria that inhabit the intestines. Administering antibiotics prophylactically can reduce the client's risk for infection. Antibiotics are indicated in the treatment of infections and have no effect on emotions. Antipyretics are useful in the treatment of elevated temperatures. Antibiotics would have an effect on infection, which causes temperature elevation, but would not directly affect such an elevation.
Question 2 of 5.
A diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is often delayed because of the varied symptoms experienced by those affected with the disease. Which symptom is most common in those with multiple sclerosis?
A. Resting tremors
B. Double vision
C. Flaccid paralysis
D. Pill-rolling tremors
Explanation: Double vision (diplopia) is a common early symptom of multiple sclerosis due to demyelination affecting the optic nerves or brainstem.
Question 3 of 5.
A child with Down syndrome has a developmental age of four years. According to the Denver Developmental Assessment, the four-year-old should be able to:
A. Draw a man in six parts
B. Give his first and last name
C. Dress without supervision
D. Define a list of words
Explanation: Per the Denver Developmental Screening Test, a four-year-old should be able to state their first and last name, a milestone achievable despite Down syndrome delays.
Question 4 of 5.
Parents of a toddler are dismayed when they learn that their child has Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Which statement describes the inheritance pattern of the disorder?
A. An affected gene is located on one of the 21 pairs of autosomes.
B. The disorder is caused by an over-replication of the X chromosome in males.
C. The affected gene is located on the Y chromosome of the father.
D. The affected gene is located on the X chromosome of the mother.
Explanation: Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, with the affected gene on the mother's X chromosome, primarily affecting males.
Question 5 of 5.
The physician has ordered an infusion of Osmitrol (mannitol) for a client with increased intracranial pressure. Which finding indicates the direct effectiveness of the drug?
A. Increased pulse rate
B. Increased urinary output
C. Decreased diastolic blood pressure
D. Increased pupil size
Explanation: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that reduces intracranial pressure by increasing urinary output, drawing fluid from the brain.
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