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Musculoskeletal RN NCLEX Questions

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Question 1 of 5.

Which of the following best describes an appropriate outcome for a 75-yr-old patient with a history of Huntington's disease, which has developed contractures?

A. The patient will monitor for signs of skin breakdown as a result of the contractures.

B. The patient will learn to reposition himself in bed and in his chair without assistance.

C. The patient will participate in range of motion exercises to reduce the effects of contractures.

D. The patient will verbalize the effects of contractures on activities of daily living.

Explanation: For a patient with Huntington's disease and contractures, participating in range of motion exercises is an appropriate outcome to help maintain joint mobility and reduce the severity of contractures. Monitoring for skin breakdown is important but not the primary outcome. Independent repositioning may not be feasible due to the progressive nature of Huntington's, and verbalizing effects is less actionable than active intervention.

Question 2 of 5.

The client is demonstrating signs and symptoms of

A. Pulmonary embolism

B. Myocardial infarction

C. Fat embolism syndrome

D. Compartment syndrome

Explanation: Fat embolism syndrome is likely after a femur fracture, with symptoms like shortness of breath, bilateral crackles, chest pain, and petechiae on the torso. Pulmonary embolism and myocardial infarction are less directly tied to fractures, and compartment syndrome affects the limb.

Question 3 of 5.

The nurse plans care for this client. For each potential intervention, click to specify whether the intervention is indicated or not indicated for the client.

Description Options
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Explanation: A: Warm compresses may worsen inflammation and infection. B: CBC monitors infection and inflammation. C: Blood cultures identify systemic infection. D: Pain medication addresses severe pain. E: MRI confirms osteomyelitis. F: IV fluids support hydration and antibiotic delivery.

Question 4 of 5.

The nurse is planning care for a client with a newly diagnosed fractured pelvis. Which action would lessen the risk of fat embolism syndrome (FES)?

A. Request a prescription for enoxaparin.

B. Alternate with the application of ice and heat.

C. Educate the client on pelvic immobilization.

D. Encourage passive range of motion of the lower legs.

Explanation: Pelvic immobilization reduces movement and the risk of fat globules entering the bloodstream, a key factor in fat embolism syndrome. Enoxaparin prevents clots, ice/heat manages swelling, and range of motion is beneficial but not primary for FES prevention.

Question 5 of 5.

While teaching the client how to use crutches, the nurse should instruct the client to ambulate using the

A. Two-point gait

B. Three-point gait

C. Four-point gait

D. Ankle having to be splinted.

E. Non-weight bearing status.

F. Prescribed pain medication.

Explanation: A three-point gait is appropriate for non-weight bearing status, as with a splinted bimalleolar fracture, allowing the client to keep weight off the injured ankle using crutches and the unaffected leg.

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